Posted by Jon Slaughter on 05/28/07 16:09

"Michael" <MichaelDMcDonnell@yahoo.com> wrote in message
news:1180368213.786423.310320@z28g2000prd.googlegroups.com...
> Since the include function is called from within a PHP script, why
> does the included file have to identify itself as a PHP again by
> enclosing its code in <?php> ... <?>
>
> One would assume that the PHP interpreter works like any other, that
> is, it first expands all the include files, and then parses the
> resulting text. Can anyone help with an explanation?
>

Because a php can contain other text such as html... the parser is only
signaled to work on the block that is inside a the php tag...

you ever wonder why <? php ?> looks like an html tag? cause it is!

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