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Posted by Kimmo Laine on 09/08/05 13:34
"Henk van Winkoop" <h.van.winkoop@wxs.nl> wrote in message
news:43201061$0$28430$ba620dc5@text.nova.planet.nl...
> Hello,
>
> my little code...
>
> <html>
> <head>
> </head>
> <body>
> <?php
> if (&var > 33){&var=0;}
> ?>
> </body>
> </html>
>
> ------------------------------------------------------------
> why is in next line:
>
> if (&var > 33){&var=0;}
>
> the '>' character interpreted as php endtag and the browser shows:
>
> " 33){&var=0;}......"
> ------------------------------------------------------------
> why does next line ('>' is replaced by '>') work fine???
>
> if (&var > 33){&var=0;}
> ------------------------------------------------------------
>
> anybody has any idea?
>
My guess is that php is not evaluated at all. It just gets passed thru the
server as is. If you take a look at the source code, do you actually see the
same as what comes to the browser, or do you see the entire php tag? Use
some other simple php code to test that php _is_ evaluated, for example
place <?php php_info(); ?> on the page and see if it outputs the php
information. I can't understund why you are using &'s instead of $'s either.
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