Reply to Re: [PHP-DEV] why is '01' == '1.'?

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Posted by "M. Sokolewicz" on 12/15/05 19:38

actually, you're right in that (colder.ch) since what happens here is a
conversion. This applies to all these 'logic cases' posted. When
something is converted to something else, as part of a process, you
can't state that the process returns unique results (meaning the result
always points back to the same input), and as such you can't state a lot
of various things posted in this thread.

But this is all OT, and really should be moved off the list, or at least
to the generals list.

- tul
colder.ch wrote:
> No, this rule of logic can't be applied : 2 == true and true == 10, but
> 2 != 10
>
> It all depends on the types of the compared values.
>
>
> Hans Melis wrote:
>
>
>>a == b and a == c implies by the rules of logic that b == c
>>
>>

[Back to original message]


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