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Posted by Greg N. on 04/18/07 09:20
Jukka K. Korpela wrote:
> What might possibly be the reason for and benefit from using XHTML
> syntax, as opposite to HTML 4.01 syntax, if XHTML syntax is not used?
Using XHTML syntax if XHTML syntax is not used? Please explain, I don't
get it.
> Using a little bit of XHTML syntax here and there might be common, but
> this doesn't make it any less foolish.
I recently started using Google maps, see
http://hothaus.de/greg-tour-2006/route.htm
I could only get it to work on IE by obeying Googles suggestion to make
the doctype XHTML with some special xmlns incantation:
<!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN"
"http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd">
<html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"
xmlns:v="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:vml">
I then made it XHTML as good as I could by just fixing whatever the
validator told me to fix.
Could I have gotten away without XHTML? Is there a working, but less
foolish approach?
--
Gregor mit dem Motorrad auf Reisen
http://hothaus.de/greg-tour/
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