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Posted by Anonymous on 07/24/07 16:22
Jerry Stuckle wrote:
> >> If it interfaces to Joomla, it uses their code.
> >
> > No, it doesn't. It just calls a function which is unavaliable. If the
> > function is unavaliable my program does not run. That's it. If Joomla
> > happens to have functions that have the same name and make sense in the
> > context so that my program actually does something useful, that's great.
> > But that does not make my program a part of Joomla or Joomla a part of
> > my program.
> >
>
> Which means your program requires Joomla to run. Your attempt to
So what? That means a user either has to have a license to both (my
program and Joomla) or he can't run my program.
> > However, if I choose to provide my program in a nonfunctional single
> > package which only contains my code I can choose to use any license I
> > like. And users who want to use my program and put Joomla and my program
> > together will have to abide by both li
> >
>
> Yes. But if you want to call Joomla functions you have to abide by
> their requirements to use those functions.
No, I don't. Not as long as I don't supply the functions together with
my program. As Toby already correctly put it: Who says I am using Joomla
functions? I (or someone else) could also program a compatible API to
work with my program which would eliminate the need for Joomla.
As long as I don't deliver Joomla together with my program, it has
nothing to do with Joomla at all.
> And you come here looking for free legal advice, then throw out anything
> which you don't agree with.
I do? I was answering questions, not asking them. Check the thread. I am
very well aware of the current legalities concerning computers and
software.
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